-by Pre Empower Sep 24 : Daily Quiz for Civil Services Prelims Examination
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Welcome to Pre Empower, your daily destination for mastering multiple-choice questions (MCQs) framed for Civil Services Examinations. Each day, we present a diverse set of carefully crafted MCQs to enhance your knowledge, boost your confidence, and prepare you for success in your civil services examinations of UPSC CSE and other State PCS like APSC, BPSC, UPPCS and others.
Questions have been designed as per the demands of examination that cover a wide range of topics, including General Studies, Current Affairs, and Aptitude for CSAT. With Pre Empower, you’ll not only test your understanding but also develop critical thinking skills essential for tackling the challenges of the Preliminary exam in the best possible manner.
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to the Preamble of the Constitution of India:
1. The Preamble was enacted before the rest of the constitution was enacted by the Constituent Assembly.
2. The Preamble is based on ‘Objective Resolution’ drafted and moved by Jawaharlal Nehru in 1946.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Answer: The correct option is B.
Explanation: The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the ‘objective Resolution’ drafted and moved by Jawaharlal Nehru on 13 December 1946. It was adopted unanimously by the Constituent Assembly on 22 January 1947. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• After adopting the Preamble, it stands as part of the Constitution. Therefore, the current opinion on the Preamble held by the Supreme Court is in consonance with the opinion of the founding fathers.
• The preamble was enacted only after the rest of the constitution was enacted by the Constituent Assembly. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The reason for enacting the preamble at the end was to ensure that it was in conformity with the Constitution as adopted by the Constituent Assembly.Incorrect
Answer: The correct option is B.
Explanation: The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the ‘objective Resolution’ drafted and moved by Jawaharlal Nehru on 13 December 1946. It was adopted unanimously by the Constituent Assembly on 22 January 1947. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• After adopting the Preamble, it stands as part of the Constitution. Therefore, the current opinion on the Preamble held by the Supreme Court is in consonance with the opinion of the founding fathers.
• The preamble was enacted only after the rest of the constitution was enacted by the Constituent Assembly. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The reason for enacting the preamble at the end was to ensure that it was in conformity with the Constitution as adopted by the Constituent Assembly. -
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
Which of the following fundamental rights protect individuals against both state and private individuals’ actions?
1. Article 17
2. Article 23
3. Article 24
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Answer: The correct option is D.
Explanation: All the fundamental rights in part three of the constitution provide protection against the actions of the state but some are also available against the actions of private individuals. These are- Article 15(2): It states that no citizen shall, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth, or any of them, be subject to any disability, liability, restriction, or condition with regard to
access to shops, public restaurants, hotels, and palaces of public entertainment or
the use of wells, tanks, bathing ghats, roads, and places of public resort maintained wholly or partly out of State funds or dedicated to the use of the general public - Article 17: It abolishes ‘untouchability and forbids its practice in any form.
- Article 23: It prohibits traffic in human beings, begar (forced labor), and other similar forms of
forced labor - Article 24: It prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in any factory, mine, or other hazardous activities like construction work or railways.
- For the violation of rights under the above articles, remedies are available against private
individuals too and the state must ensure that proper action is taken. Hence option D is the correct answer.
Incorrect
Answer: The correct option is D.
Explanation: All the fundamental rights in part three of the constitution provide protection against the actions of the state but some are also available against the actions of private individuals. These are- Article 15(2): It states that no citizen shall, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth, or any of them, be subject to any disability, liability, restriction, or condition with regard to
access to shops, public restaurants, hotels, and palaces of public entertainment or
the use of wells, tanks, bathing ghats, roads, and places of public resort maintained wholly or partly out of State funds or dedicated to the use of the general public - Article 17: It abolishes ‘untouchability and forbids its practice in any form.
- Article 23: It prohibits traffic in human beings, begar (forced labor), and other similar forms of
forced labor - Article 24: It prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in any factory, mine, or other hazardous activities like construction work or railways.
- For the violation of rights under the above articles, remedies are available against private
individuals too and the state must ensure that proper action is taken. Hence option D is the correct answer.
-
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the differences between the Indian and British polity:
1. The Indian system is based on the doctrine of the sovereignty of Parliament while the Parliament is not supreme in Britain.
2. India does not have the system of legal responsibility of the minister but Britain has it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Answer: The correct option is B.
Explanation: The parliamentary system of government in India is largely based on the British parliamentary system.However, it never became a replica of the British system and differs in the following respects:
• India has a republican system in place of the British monarchical system. In other words, the Head of the State in India (that is, President) is elected, while the Head of the State in Britain (that is, King or Queen) enjoys a hereditary position.
• The British system is based on the doctrine of the sovereignty of Parliament, while the Parliament is not supreme in India and enjoys limited and restricted powers due to a written Constitution, the federal system, judicial review, and fundamental rights. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• In Britain, the prime minister should be a member of the Lower House (House of Commons) of the Parliament. In India, the prime minister may be a member of any of the two Houses of Parliament.
• Usually, the members of Parliament alone are appointed as ministers in Britain. In India, a person who is not a member of Parliament can also be appointed as minister, but for a maximum period of six months.
• Britain has the system of legal responsibility of the minister while India has no such system. Unlike in Britain, the ministers in India are not required to countersign the official acts of the Head of the State. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• ‘Shadow cabinet’ is an unique institution of the British cabinet system. It is formed by the opposition party to balance the ruling cabinet and to prepare its members for future ministerial office. There is no such institution in India.Incorrect
Answer: The correct option is B.
Explanation: The parliamentary system of government in India is largely based on the British parliamentary system.However, it never became a replica of the British system and differs in the following respects:
• India has a republican system in place of the British monarchical system. In other words, the Head of the State in India (that is, President) is elected, while the Head of the State in Britain (that is, King or Queen) enjoys a hereditary position.
• The British system is based on the doctrine of the sovereignty of Parliament, while the Parliament is not supreme in India and enjoys limited and restricted powers due to a written Constitution, the federal system, judicial review, and fundamental rights. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• In Britain, the prime minister should be a member of the Lower House (House of Commons) of the Parliament. In India, the prime minister may be a member of any of the two Houses of Parliament.
• Usually, the members of Parliament alone are appointed as ministers in Britain. In India, a person who is not a member of Parliament can also be appointed as minister, but for a maximum period of six months.
• Britain has the system of legal responsibility of the minister while India has no such system. Unlike in Britain, the ministers in India are not required to countersign the official acts of the Head of the State. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• ‘Shadow cabinet’ is an unique institution of the British cabinet system. It is formed by the opposition party to balance the ruling cabinet and to prepare its members for future ministerial office. There is no such institution in India. -
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
Framers of our Constitution made the Directive Principles non-justiciable because:
1. Inadequate financial resources at the disposal of the state.
2. Diversity and backwardness of the country acting as a stumbling block in their implementation.
3. Fundamental rights already have been made justiciable and making Directive principles justiciable would be meaningless.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Answer: The correct option is B.
Explanation: Though the Directive Principles are non-justiciable, the Constitution (Article 37) makes it clear that these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws.
• The framers of the Constitution made the Directive Principles non-justiciable and legally non-enforceable because:
The country did not possess sufficient financial resources to implement them. To implement all the directive principles the newly formed independent state would require an enormous amount of financial resources and this would be a challenge to the country. Keeping in this regard they were made non-justiciable. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The presence of vast diversity and backwardness in the country would stand in the way of their implementation. The directive principles are so diverse in character and constitutional makers felt that making them justiciable may create obstacles for the newly independent country as some of the directive principles like the Uniform Civil Code were opposed by some communities. They wanted to give the state sufficient time and a place of choosing to India’s future leaders implement them. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Fundamental rights already have been made justiciable and making Directive principles justiciable will be meaningless. Hence statement 3 is not correct as making Directive Principles justiciable will not be meaningless and in fact making them justiciable can create a socially just and egalitarian society.Incorrect
Answer: The correct option is B.
Explanation: Though the Directive Principles are non-justiciable, the Constitution (Article 37) makes it clear that these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws.
• The framers of the Constitution made the Directive Principles non-justiciable and legally non-enforceable because:
The country did not possess sufficient financial resources to implement them. To implement all the directive principles the newly formed independent state would require an enormous amount of financial resources and this would be a challenge to the country. Keeping in this regard they were made non-justiciable. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The presence of vast diversity and backwardness in the country would stand in the way of their implementation. The directive principles are so diverse in character and constitutional makers felt that making them justiciable may create obstacles for the newly independent country as some of the directive principles like the Uniform Civil Code were opposed by some communities. They wanted to give the state sufficient time and a place of choosing to India’s future leaders implement them. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Fundamental rights already have been made justiciable and making Directive principles justiciable will be meaningless. Hence statement 3 is not correct as making Directive Principles justiciable will not be meaningless and in fact making them justiciable can create a socially just and egalitarian society. -
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
Which of the following provisions can be amended by a simple majority of Parliament?
1. Admission or establishment of new states
2. Use of official language
3. Elections to Parliament and state legislatures
4. Conferment of more jurisdiction on the Supreme Court
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Answer: The correct option is D.
Explanation: A number of provisions in the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368. These provisions include:
Admission or establishment of new states. Hence option 1 is correct.
Formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries, or names of existing states.
Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.
Second Schedule–emoluments, allowances, privileges, and so on of the president, the governors, the Speakers, judges, etc.
Quorum in Parliament.
Salaries and allowances of the members of Parliament.
Rules of procedure in Parliament.
Privileges of the Parliament, its members, and its committees.
Use of English language in Parliament.
Number of puisne judges in the Supreme Court.
Conferment of more jurisdiction on the Supreme Court. Hence option 4 is correct.
Use of official language. Hence option 2 is correct.
Citizenship–acquisition and termination.
Elections to Parliament and state legislatures. Hence option 3 is correct.
Delimitation of constituencies.
Union territories.
Fifth Schedule–administration of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
Sixth Schedule–administration of tribal areas.Incorrect
Answer: The correct option is D.
Explanation: A number of provisions in the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368. These provisions include:
Admission or establishment of new states. Hence option 1 is correct.
Formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries, or names of existing states.
Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.
Second Schedule–emoluments, allowances, privileges, and so on of the president, the governors, the Speakers, judges, etc.
Quorum in Parliament.
Salaries and allowances of the members of Parliament.
Rules of procedure in Parliament.
Privileges of the Parliament, its members, and its committees.
Use of English language in Parliament.
Number of puisne judges in the Supreme Court.
Conferment of more jurisdiction on the Supreme Court. Hence option 4 is correct.
Use of official language. Hence option 2 is correct.
Citizenship–acquisition and termination.
Elections to Parliament and state legislatures. Hence option 3 is correct.
Delimitation of constituencies.
Union territories.
Fifth Schedule–administration of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
Sixth Schedule–administration of tribal areas.
