-by Pre Empower Oct 19 : Daily Quiz for Civil Services Prelims Examination
Quiz-summary
0 of 5 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
Information
Welcome to Pre Empower, your daily destination for mastering multiple-choice questions (MCQs) framed for Civil Services Examinations. Each day, we present a diverse set of carefully crafted MCQs to enhance your knowledge, boost your confidence, and prepare you for success in your civil services examinations of UPSC CSE and other State PCS like APSC, BPSC, UPPCS and others.
Questions have been designed as per the demands of examination that cover a wide range of topics, including General Studies, Current Affairs, and Aptitude for CSAT. With Pre Empower, you’ll not only test your understanding but also develop critical thinking skills essential for tackling the challenges of the Preliminary exam in the best possible manner.
Join us at SMART IAS Foundation on this journey to achieve your goals and secure your future in Civil Services.
Study Smart – Stay ahead of crowd !
To view Solutions, follow these instructions:
- To Start quiz click on – ‘Start Quiz’
- Solve all Questions.
- Click on ‘Quiz Summary’
- Click on ‘Finish Quiz’
- Click on ‘View Questions’ button to see the all Explanations.
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 5 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 5
1. Question
In the Indian federal system, which of the following statements is correct?
Correct
Answer: Option (C) The Union Government can legislate on matters in the State List during an Emergency
Explanation:
India has a quasi-federal structure, which means that while it has features of a federal system, the balance of power often leans towards the central government, especially during times of emergency.
Exclusive Jurisdictions (A): The Union List includes subjects on which only the Parliament can legislate, such as defense, foreign affairs, and currency. The State List includes subjects like police, public health, and agriculture, which fall within the exclusive jurisdiction of the State Legislatures. In normal circumstances, both levels of government exercise exclusive jurisdiction over their respective lists.
Union Authority Over State List (B): Generally, the Union Government cannot legislate on subjects in the State List. However, there are specific situations where the Union Government can legislate on these matters:
During a national emergency (Article 250).
If the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a two-thirds majority stating that it is necessary in the national interest for Parliament to legislate on a State List subject (Article 249).
During the President’s Rule in a state (Article 356).
Emergency Situations (C): During a national emergency, the Union Government can legislate on matters in the State List. This provision ensures that the central government can take swift and effective action to manage the emergency and ensure national security and stability. This demonstrates the strength of the Union government in a crisis, reflecting the unitary nature of the Indian system during exceptional circumstances.
State Government Legislating on Union List (D): State Legislatures cannot legislate on subjects in the Union List under any circumstances. These subjects are strictly within the purview of the central government due to their national importance.
Therefore, statement (C) correctly reflects the power of the Union Government during an emergency.Incorrect
Answer: Option (C) The Union Government can legislate on matters in the State List during an Emergency
Explanation:
India has a quasi-federal structure, which means that while it has features of a federal system, the balance of power often leans towards the central government, especially during times of emergency.
Exclusive Jurisdictions (A): The Union List includes subjects on which only the Parliament can legislate, such as defense, foreign affairs, and currency. The State List includes subjects like police, public health, and agriculture, which fall within the exclusive jurisdiction of the State Legislatures. In normal circumstances, both levels of government exercise exclusive jurisdiction over their respective lists.
Union Authority Over State List (B): Generally, the Union Government cannot legislate on subjects in the State List. However, there are specific situations where the Union Government can legislate on these matters:
During a national emergency (Article 250).
If the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a two-thirds majority stating that it is necessary in the national interest for Parliament to legislate on a State List subject (Article 249).
During the President’s Rule in a state (Article 356).
Emergency Situations (C): During a national emergency, the Union Government can legislate on matters in the State List. This provision ensures that the central government can take swift and effective action to manage the emergency and ensure national security and stability. This demonstrates the strength of the Union government in a crisis, reflecting the unitary nature of the Indian system during exceptional circumstances.
State Government Legislating on Union List (D): State Legislatures cannot legislate on subjects in the Union List under any circumstances. These subjects are strictly within the purview of the central government due to their national importance.
Therefore, statement (C) correctly reflects the power of the Union Government during an emergency. -
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
Which of the following fundamental rights is available to both citizens and foreigners?
Correct
Answer: Option (C) Right to Life and Personal Liberty
Explanation:
Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Indian Constitution, ensuring the protection of individual rights and liberties. These rights are categorized based on who can avail of them—some are available only to citizens of India, while others are available to everyone within the territory of India, including foreigners.
Right to Equality (A): Articles 14-18 of the Indian Constitution deal with the Right to Equality. Article 14 (Equality before the law and equal protection of the law) applies to both citizens and foreigners. However, other components of the Right to Equality, such as Article 16 (Equality of opportunity in public employment), apply only to Indian citizens.
Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression (B): Article 19 provides the Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression, but it is exclusively available to Indian citizens. It aims to protect the political and democratic rights of citizens, allowing them to participate in governance.
Right to Life and Personal Liberty (C): Article 21 guarantees the Right to Life and Personal Liberty to all persons, whether citizens or foreigners. This means that no person can be deprived of their life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law. The judiciary has interpreted Article 21 expansively to include various rights, such as the right to live with human dignity, the right to privacy, and the right to a clean environment.
Right Against Discrimination (D): Article 15 prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth, but it is applicable only to citizens. It ensures equality in accessing public services and opportunities, thereby protecting the rights of Indian citizens.
Thus, the Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21 is available to both citizens and foreigners, making statement (C) correct.Incorrect
Answer: Option (C) Right to Life and Personal Liberty
Explanation:
Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Indian Constitution, ensuring the protection of individual rights and liberties. These rights are categorized based on who can avail of them—some are available only to citizens of India, while others are available to everyone within the territory of India, including foreigners.
Right to Equality (A): Articles 14-18 of the Indian Constitution deal with the Right to Equality. Article 14 (Equality before the law and equal protection of the law) applies to both citizens and foreigners. However, other components of the Right to Equality, such as Article 16 (Equality of opportunity in public employment), apply only to Indian citizens.
Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression (B): Article 19 provides the Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression, but it is exclusively available to Indian citizens. It aims to protect the political and democratic rights of citizens, allowing them to participate in governance.
Right to Life and Personal Liberty (C): Article 21 guarantees the Right to Life and Personal Liberty to all persons, whether citizens or foreigners. This means that no person can be deprived of their life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law. The judiciary has interpreted Article 21 expansively to include various rights, such as the right to live with human dignity, the right to privacy, and the right to a clean environment.
Right Against Discrimination (D): Article 15 prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth, but it is applicable only to citizens. It ensures equality in accessing public services and opportunities, thereby protecting the rights of Indian citizens.
Thus, the Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21 is available to both citizens and foreigners, making statement (C) correct. -
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
Who among the following is not a part of the “Council of Ministers”?
Correct
Answer: Option (D) The Attorney General of India
Explanation:
The Council of Ministers is a body of ministers appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister to assist in the administration of the country. The structure and composition of the Council of Ministers are laid down in the Indian Constitution.
Prime Minister (A): The Prime Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers and is responsible for leading the government. The Prime Minister is appointed by the President and is the primary link between the President and the Council.
Cabinet Ministers (B): Cabinet Ministers are senior members of the government, usually in charge of significant ministries such as Finance, Defense, or Home Affairs. They form the core decision-making body and play a vital role in policy formulation.
Ministers of State (C): A Minister of State can either be in charge of an independent ministry or assist a Cabinet Minister. They are part of the broader Council of Ministers but do not hold the same level of authority as Cabinet Ministers.
Attorney General of India (D): The Attorney General of India is the highest law officer in the country, appointed by the President under Article 76. The Attorney General’s role is to provide legal advice to the government and represent it in legal matters. However, the Attorney General is not a member of the Council of Ministers and does not have the authority to participate in decision-making or vote in the cabinet. The Attorney General may attend parliamentary proceedings but only in an advisory capacity.
Therefore, the Attorney General of India is not part of the Council of Ministers, making option (D) the correct answer.Incorrect
Answer: Option (D) The Attorney General of India
Explanation:
The Council of Ministers is a body of ministers appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister to assist in the administration of the country. The structure and composition of the Council of Ministers are laid down in the Indian Constitution.
Prime Minister (A): The Prime Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers and is responsible for leading the government. The Prime Minister is appointed by the President and is the primary link between the President and the Council.
Cabinet Ministers (B): Cabinet Ministers are senior members of the government, usually in charge of significant ministries such as Finance, Defense, or Home Affairs. They form the core decision-making body and play a vital role in policy formulation.
Ministers of State (C): A Minister of State can either be in charge of an independent ministry or assist a Cabinet Minister. They are part of the broader Council of Ministers but do not hold the same level of authority as Cabinet Ministers.
Attorney General of India (D): The Attorney General of India is the highest law officer in the country, appointed by the President under Article 76. The Attorney General’s role is to provide legal advice to the government and represent it in legal matters. However, the Attorney General is not a member of the Council of Ministers and does not have the authority to participate in decision-making or vote in the cabinet. The Attorney General may attend parliamentary proceedings but only in an advisory capacity.
Therefore, the Attorney General of India is not part of the Council of Ministers, making option (D) the correct answer. -
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
Which of the following statements regarding “Fundamental Duties” is correct?
(i) They are enforceable by law
(ii) They were introduced by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment
(iii) They apply only to citizens of India
(iv) The Constitution initially provided Fundamental Duties
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:Correct
Answer: Option (A) (ii) and (iii) only
Explanation:
Fundamental Duties are listed in Article 51A under Part IVA of the Indian Constitution. They serve as moral obligations for citizens to promote a sense of patriotism and uphold the spirit of unity.
Enforceability (i): Unlike Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties are not enforceable by law. This means that if a citizen fails to perform these duties, they cannot be legally prosecuted. However, certain statutory laws impose penalties for actions that violate specific duties, such as damaging public property.
42nd Constitutional Amendment (ii): Fundamental Duties were introduced by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. Initially, there were ten duties, and the 86th Amendment Act, 2002 added one more duty, making it a total of eleven.
Applicability to Citizens (iii): Fundamental Duties are applicable only to Indian citizens and not to foreigners residing in India. They outline the responsibilities of citizens towards the state and society.
Initially Provided (iv): Fundamental Duties were not originally part of the Constitution. They were introduced later to complement the Fundamental Rights and ensure that citizens are reminded of their duties towards the nation.
Thus, statements (ii) and (iii) are correct, while statements (i) and (iv) are incorrect.Incorrect
Answer: Option (A) (ii) and (iii) only
Explanation:
Fundamental Duties are listed in Article 51A under Part IVA of the Indian Constitution. They serve as moral obligations for citizens to promote a sense of patriotism and uphold the spirit of unity.
Enforceability (i): Unlike Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties are not enforceable by law. This means that if a citizen fails to perform these duties, they cannot be legally prosecuted. However, certain statutory laws impose penalties for actions that violate specific duties, such as damaging public property.
42nd Constitutional Amendment (ii): Fundamental Duties were introduced by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. Initially, there were ten duties, and the 86th Amendment Act, 2002 added one more duty, making it a total of eleven.
Applicability to Citizens (iii): Fundamental Duties are applicable only to Indian citizens and not to foreigners residing in India. They outline the responsibilities of citizens towards the state and society.
Initially Provided (iv): Fundamental Duties were not originally part of the Constitution. They were introduced later to complement the Fundamental Rights and ensure that citizens are reminded of their duties towards the nation.
Thus, statements (ii) and (iii) are correct, while statements (i) and (iv) are incorrect. -
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
Which one of the following statements about the Preamble of the Indian Constitution is correct?
Correct
Answer: Option (B) The Preamble can be amended
Explanation:
The Preamble is an introductory statement that outlines the philosophy, ideals, and objectives of the Indian Constitution. It serves as the guiding light for interpreting the provisions of the Constitution and reflects the vision of the Constituent Assembly.
Integral Part (A): The Supreme Court, in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), held that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution. It can be used to interpret ambiguous provisions of the Constitution, and it reflects the basic structure of the Constitution. Thus, statement (A) is incorrect.
Amendment of the Preamble (B): The Preamble can be amended, but the basic features cannot be altered. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, amended the Preamble by adding the words “Socialist,” “Secular,” and “Integrity.” This demonstrates that the Preamble is subject to amendment under Article 368.
Granting Rights (C): The Preamble itself does not grant any specific rights to citizens. Instead, it outlines the goals and principles of the Constitution, such as justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity. Rights are granted by the specific provisions in Part III (Fundamental Rights) of the Constitution. Thus, statement (C) is incorrect.
Judicial Interpretation (D): Courts, including the Supreme Court, have interpreted the Preamble in various judgments to understand the intent of the Constitution. For example, the Preamble has been cited to interpret the meaning of terms like “socialist” and “secular.” Therefore, it is incorrect to say that the Preamble cannot be interpreted by courts.
Thus, the correct statement is that the Preamble can be amended, making option (B) the right answer.Incorrect
Answer: Option (B) The Preamble can be amended
Explanation:
The Preamble is an introductory statement that outlines the philosophy, ideals, and objectives of the Indian Constitution. It serves as the guiding light for interpreting the provisions of the Constitution and reflects the vision of the Constituent Assembly.
Integral Part (A): The Supreme Court, in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), held that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution. It can be used to interpret ambiguous provisions of the Constitution, and it reflects the basic structure of the Constitution. Thus, statement (A) is incorrect.
Amendment of the Preamble (B): The Preamble can be amended, but the basic features cannot be altered. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, amended the Preamble by adding the words “Socialist,” “Secular,” and “Integrity.” This demonstrates that the Preamble is subject to amendment under Article 368.
Granting Rights (C): The Preamble itself does not grant any specific rights to citizens. Instead, it outlines the goals and principles of the Constitution, such as justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity. Rights are granted by the specific provisions in Part III (Fundamental Rights) of the Constitution. Thus, statement (C) is incorrect.
Judicial Interpretation (D): Courts, including the Supreme Court, have interpreted the Preamble in various judgments to understand the intent of the Constitution. For example, the Preamble has been cited to interpret the meaning of terms like “socialist” and “secular.” Therefore, it is incorrect to say that the Preamble cannot be interpreted by courts.
Thus, the correct statement is that the Preamble can be amended, making option (B) the right answer.
